Definitions
A complex number is algebraic over \BbbQ if it is a root of a polynomial equation with rational coefficients.
Thus a is algebraic if there are rational numbers a0,a1,¼,an not all 0, such that a0an+a1an-1+¼+an-1a+an = 0.
A complex number is transcendental if it is not algebraic, so it is not the root of any polynomial equation with rational coefficients.
(The material in the rest of this paper is taken from notes issued by Ian Stewart as an adjunct to a series of lectures in 1970 at the University of Warwick)
In proving that it is impossible to 'square the circle' by a ruler-and-compass construction we have to appeal to the theorem:
The real number p is transcendental over \BbbQ
The purpose of this supplement is to indicate, for those who may be interested, how this theorem may be proved.
It is possible to prove that there exist transcendental real numbers by using infinite cardinals, as was first done by Cantor in 1874. Earlier Liouville (1844) had actually constructed transcendentals, for example ån = 1¥10-n!.
However, no naturally occurring real number (such as e or p) was proved transcendental until Hermite (1873) disposed of e. p held out until 1882 when Lindemann, using methods related to those of Hermite, disposed of that. In 1900 David Hilbert proposed the problem:
If a,b are real numbers algebraic over \BbbQ, if a ¹ 0 or 1 and b is irrational, prove ab is transcendental.
This was solved independently in 1934 by the Russian, Gelfand, and
a German, Schneider.
Before proving transcendence of p we shall prove a number of similar theorems, using simpler versions of the final method, as an aid to comprehension. The tools needed are first-year analysis.
p is irrational
Proof
Let In(x) = ò-1+1( 1-x2) ncos( ax) dx
Integrating by parts we have
a2In = 2n( 2n-1) In-1-4n( n-1)In-2 ( n ³ 2)
which implies that
a2n+1In = n!( Pnsin( a)+Qncos( a) ) (*)
where Pn,Qn are polynomials of degree < 2n+1 in a with integer coefficients.
degPn = n, degQn = n-1
Put a = [(p)/2], and assume p is rational, so that p = \dfracba, a,b Î \BbbZ
From ( *) we deduce that Jn = \dfracb2n+1Inn! is an integer. On the other hand Jn® 0 as n®¥ since b is fixed and In is bounded by
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p2 is irrational - so p does not lie in any quadratic extension
of \BbbQ
Proof
Assume p2 = \dfracab, a,b Î \BbbZ.
Define f(x) = \dfracxn( 1-x) nn!,
G( x) = bn[ p2nf( x) -p2n-2f¢¢( x) +¼+( -1) np0f( 2n) ( x) ]
(superscripts indicating differentiations). We see that the value of any derivative of f at 0 or 1 is either 0 or an integer. Also G(0) and G( 1) are integers. Now since f(2n+2) ( x) = 0
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Getting more involved, now:
e is transcendental over \BbbQ (Hermite)
Proof
Suppose amem+¼+a1e+a0 = 0 (ai Î \BbbZ).
WLOG a0 ¹ 0
Define f(x) = \dfracxp-1( x-1) p( x-2)p¼( x-m) p( p-1) !
where for the moment p is arbitrary and prime.
Define F( x) = f( x) +f¢( x)+¼+f( mp+p-1) ( x) .
Now if 0 < x < m,
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so that
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We show that in the exceptional case the term is NOT divisible by p. Clearly f( p-1) ( 0) = ( -1) p¼( -m) p.
We choose p larger than m, when this product cannot have a prime factor p. Hence the right-hand side of the above equation is an integer ¹ 0. But as p® ¥ the left-hand side tends to 0, using the above estimate for | f( x) | . This is a contradiction.
p is transcendental over \BbbQ (Lindemann)
Proof
If p satisfies an algebraic equation with coefficents in \BbbQ, so does ip (i = Ö[(-1)]). Let this equation be q1(x) = 0, with roots ip = a1,¼,an. Now eip+1 = 0 so
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q1( x) q2( x) ¼qn( x) = 0
is a polynomial equation over \BbbQ whose roots are all sums of a s. Deleting zero roots from this, if any, we get
q( x) = 0
q( x) = cxr+c1xr-1+¼cr
and cr ¹ 0 since we have deleted zero roots. The roots of this equation are the non-zero exponents of e in the product when expanded. Call these b1,¼br. The original equation becomes
eb1+¼ebr+e0+¼e0 = 0
ie
åebi+k = 0
where k is an integer > 0 ( ¹ 0 since the term 1¼1 exists)
Now define
f( x) = csxp-1\dfrac[ q( x)] p( p-1) !
where s = rp-1 and p will be determined later. Define
F( x) = f( x) +f¢( x)+¼+f( s+p) ( x) .
[(d)/(dx)][ e-xF( x) ] = -e-xf(x) as before.
Hence we have
e-xF( x) -F( 0) = -ò0xe-yf(y) dy.
Putting y = lx we get
F( x) -exF( 0) = -xò01e(1-l) xf( lx) dl.
Let x range over the bi and sum. Since åebi+k = 0 we get
åj = 1rF( bj) +kF( 0) = -åj = 1rbjò01e( 1-l)bjf( lbj) dl.
CLAIM:
For large enough p the LHS is a non-zero integer.
åj = 1rf( t) ( bj) = 0 ( 0 < t < p) by definition of f. Each derivative of order p or more has a factor p and a factor cs, since we must differentiate [ q( x) ] p enough times to get ¹ 0. And f( t) ( bj) is a polynomial in bj of degree at most s. The sum is symmetric, and so is an integer provided each coefficient is divisible by cs, which it is. (symmetric functions are polynomials in coefficients = polynomials in \dfraccic of degree £ s). Thus we have
åj = 1rf( t) ( bj) = pkt t = p,¼p+s.
Thus LHS = ( \funcinteger) +kF( 0) . What is F( 0) ?
f( t) ( 0) = 0 t = 0,¼,p-2.
f( p-1) ( 0) = cscrp (cr ¹ 0)
f( t) ( 0) = p (some integer) t = p,p+1,¼.
So the LHS is an integer multiple of p+cscrpk. This is not divisible by p if p > k,c,cr. So it is a non-zero integer. But the RHS ® 0 as p® ¥ and we get the usual contradiction.